Believing in the word of Allah the Quran

Believing in the word of Allah the Quran

Allah Almighty accomplished the religion of truth of peace and His choice by blessing the Ummah with the beloved of all Prophets and last Messengers of Allah, Muhammad (SAW), descending upon Him the true and the greatest book of all time, The Holy Quran to let us guide and knowing Islam and learning quran, as narrated: O’ people! No Prophet would be raised after me and no new Ummah (would be formed) after you.


Verily I have left amongst you that which will never lead you astray; the Book of Allah, which if you hold fast you shall never go astray

Read Quran it is the true word of Allah; Muhammad (SAW) is referring about it. Thus the Quran turns out to be an ultimate way of guidance descended upon all mankind till the Day of Judgment.

And also in Surah e Baqara, Allah Himself glorifies the Holy Quran

Al-Baqara [2:2] this is the book; in it is guidance sure, without doubt, to those who fear Allah.

After this it leaves no room for argument to the guided ones or doubt in hearts and souls of true believers that the book that was reviled on prophet Muhammad (SAW) the holy Quran is the source of guidance for whom who are searching for guidance of Allah and his blessings.

Those of us who believe in greatness of Quran and try to understand and follow the true teachings of God are definitely differentiated from the ones who don’t do so, as narrated in this verse:

Al-Baqara [2:78] and there are among them illiterates, who know not the book, but (see therein their own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture.

What makes Muslims believe that the Quran

Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammad is not the author of the Quran. God is its Author. The following points bear the fact:

First of all, the Quran itself, at a number of places and in different ways, says that it is from God. One of the claims runs thus: “This is indeed a Quran most honourable, a Book well-guarded…a Revelation from the Lord of the Worlds.” (Quran 56:77-80)

(Here, one ought to know the features of the Quran to understand the claim better. For instance, if the Quran had consisted of a number of books, and each book was made up of a number of chapters, then each of the books had to claim that it was from God in order to render the WHOLE volume as coming from God. But, this is fortunately not so with the Quran. The Quran is just ONE Book made up of 114 chapters. So, if the Quran claims, in any of its chapters, that the Book is from God, then the WHOLE Quran is from God. Yet, the Quran does not make the divine claim only once, but several times in different phrases and in different chapters.)

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His father wants him to travel for work and his wife insists on him staying


I am very confused. I got married 9 months ago; I stayed 4 months with my wife then traveled abroad. My wife has objected to this. She tried to stop me but this did not work. Alhamdulillah, we love and understand each other. I tried to persuade her that after traveling I will look for a flat and send her a visa to come and live with me abroad. But I did not find a suitable flat. It is too expensive to rent a flat here; even all my salary is not enough for half a month. When she knew this she started sending messages to me tell me how much she suffers, her tears do not dry up, and her heart is burning of missing me.

On the other hand, my father encourages me to stay abroad and work in order to help in my brother’s marriage. While my wife says she cannot live alone and asks me daily to come home, my father wants me to stay abroad.

 Shall I return to my wife and not be unfair with her, or stay here and help my father in my brother’s marriage?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The husband may travel and
be away from his wife for the sake of work or others interests that are
Islamically acceptable, for a period no longer than six months. If it is
longer than that, then he must ask his wife for permission. 

The basic principle
concerning that is that ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab asked his daughter Hafsah (may
Allaah be pleased with her): O my daughter, how long can a woman bear to be
away from her husband? She said: Subhaan Allaah, would one such as you ask
one such as me about that? He said: Were it not that I want to make a
decision concerning the Muslims I would not have asked you. She said: Five
months or six months. So he set a time limit for the people on their
campaigns of six months: they would march for a month, then stay there for
four months, then take another month for the journey back. 

Imam Ahmad (may Allaah have
mercy on him) was asked: How long may a husband be away from his wife? He
said: It was narrated: Six months. 

See: al-Mughni
(7/232, 416). 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may
Allaah have mercy on him) said: With regard to a man travelling and being
away from his wife, if she is in a safe place there is nothing wrong with
it, and if she lets him stay away for more than six months, there is nothing
wrong with it. But if she asks for her rights and asks him to come back to
her, then he should not stay away for more than six months. But if there is
a reason such as a sick person who is being treated and so on, then cases of
necessity come under their own rulings. Whatever the case, it is the wife’s
right, and if she allows that and is in a safe place, there is no sin on
him, even if the husband is away a great deal. End quote from Fataawa
al-‘Ulama’ fi ‘Ushrat al-Nisa’ (p. 106). 

Based on that, it is your
wife’s right that you should return to them, especially since your salary is
not enough for accommodation, as you say. This means that you are staying
away from your family when they need you. 

It is no secret that
fulfilling rights and protecting one’s family and looking after them, and
maintaining love and stability, takes precedence over accumulating money. 

You are not obliged to obey
your father even if he tells you to stay abroad, because that may result in
loss of your wife’s rights. It is well known that there is no obedience to
any created being if it involves disobedience towards the Creator, but you
should speak kindly and convince him, and explain that there is nothing to
be gained from being away from your family. 

We ask Allaah to help and
guide you. 

And Allaah knows best.

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Wife serving her husband’s father


My husband’s father has come to live with us and he is sick with Alzheimer’s which is causing a lot of problems and stress. What are my duties towards him?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The wife is not obliged to serve her husband’s father, mother
or any of his relatives; rather it is good manners, if she lives in the same
house, to serve his parents. But obliging her to do that is not permissible.
So it is not permissible for her husband to force her to do that, and it is
not obligatory for her. What I advocate is that the wife should be patient
in serving her husband’s father and remember that it will not harm her,
rather it will make her more respected and loved by her husband. And Allaah
is the Source of strength. End quote. 

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Is his spending on his wife who is also a relative regarded as kindness towards her family?


ut you will
be rewarded for it, even (the morsel) that you put in your wife’s mouth.” 

Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim: This
shows that spending on one’s dependents brings reward, if he intends thereby
to seek the Countenance of Allaah. End quote. 

Al-Bukhaari (55) and Muslim (1002) narrated from Abu Mas’ood al-Badri (may
Allaah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of
Allaah be upon him) said: “If a Muslim spends on his family, seeking reward
for that with Allaah, then it will an act of charity on his part.” 

Muslim (994) narrated from Thawbaan, the freed slave of the Messenger of
Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) that the Messenger
of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The best
dinar that a man spends is a dinar that he spends on his family, and a dinar
that a man spends on his mount (for jihad) for the sake of Allaah, and a
dinar that he spends on his companions (in jihad) for the sake of Allaah.” 

Qilaabah said: He started with the family. And Abu Qilaabah said: What man
is greater in reward than a man who spends on young dependents and protects
them from resorting to haraam deeds – or Allaah benefits them through him –
and makes them independent of means. 

Whatever a man spends on his wife and dependents, he will have a reward for
that with Allaah, so long as he seeks reward for that, and intends to draw
closer to Allaah by doing what is required of him, or by making them happy,
or by honouring his relatives and treating them kindly.  

Allaah knows best.

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Is it permissible for a wife to take from her husband’s wealth without his permission?


Is it permissible for a wife to take from her husband’s wealth without his permission? and if that has happened what is the expiation for that?.

Praise be to Allaah.


It is not permissible for a woman to take anything from her
husband’s wealth without his permission, unless he is falling short in his
spending on her, in which case it is permissible for her to take what is
sufficient for her and her children on a reasonable basis, as the Prophet
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to Hind bint ‘Utbah
when she complained to him that her husband Abu Sufyaan was falling short in
his spending on her and on her children. He said to her: “Take what is
sufficient for you and your children on a reasonable basis.” There is no
kafaarah required for that if the situation is as we have described. But if
she takes when there is no shortcoming on his part, then she has to return
what she took even if that is without his knowledge, if she is afraid that
telling him will make him angry with her. 

May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad
and his family and companions. 

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He cut off his relationship with his wife a while ago. Does he have to divorce her?


I am a man who is married to 2 wives, and I have children aged 20 and above from my first wife, but I married the second wife on the basis that I have no relationship with the first wife. Since I married the second one and before I married her, I had no relationship with the first wife. What I mean is that I did not stay overnight with her because I did not get along with her, but I did not divorce her. That was in accordance with my children’s wishes, because they asked me not to divorce their mother out of concern for their reputation for their friends, and I respected these wishes. I want to know whether I have committed any sin thereby, and what is the solution? Can I keep her as a wife even though I do not have any intimacy with her, or do I have to divorce her?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The wife has the right to
have her husband stay overnight with her, and she is entitled to kind
treatment and intimacy. She has the right to ask for divorce if her husband
fails to give her these rights. But if she agrees to stay and give up her
rights, then she may do that and you do not have to divorce her in that

Muslim narrated (1463) from
‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that when Sawdah bint Zam’ah grew
old, she said: O Messenger of Allaah, I have given my day with you to
‘Aa’ishah. The Messenger of Allaah (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon
him) used to give ‘Aa’ishah two days: her day and Sawdah’s. 

This indicates that it is
permissible for a woman to give up her right to a share of her husband’s
time, and to give her night to her co-wife. 

But if the wife does not
accept this situation, and she also does not want divorce, then you have to
review your case and try to resolve the problem, give her her rights, treat
her kindly and show her some appreciation, because she is the mother of your
children and she has lived with you all this time. 

We ask Allaah to set all our
affairs straight. 

And Allaah knows best.

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Ruling on divorce via e-mail


First divorce communicated through email to te wife ,father,and uncle whether valid or a signed document necessary? whether the other two remaining divorces can be obtained immediately?.

Praise be to Allaah.



It is well known in sharee’ah that divorce takes place when
the words are uttered, written or indicated by a gesture that takes the
place of speaking. See question No.
20660. This is something that is between the husband and his Lord if no
one hears him say that. With the regard to divorce via e-mail there is no
problem regarding the fact that it is valid: if the husband writes that he
is divorcing his wife then the divorce takes place by virtue of that
writing. But the issue here is whether this divorce can be proven and
authenticated (in court).  

It seems that the husband’s divorce of his wife via e-mail is
effective if it is proven definitively that the one who sent the e-mail
containing the words of divorce is the husband or someone whom the husband
appointed to issue the divorce, and he acknowledges that and does not deny

But if that cannot be proven and the husband does not
acknowledge it, then this e-mail message is not valid and divorce does not
take place in this case, because it is well known to those who work in this
field that it is possible to hack into e-mail accounts and send messages. So
we cannot be absolutely certain that the one who sent it is the husband. 

So proof and confirmation must be sought from the husband,
and the the divorce should not be regarded as having taken place until after
it has been confirmed by the husband. If he confirms it then the ‘iddah
begins from the time when he uttered or wrote the words of divorce. 


The two remaining divorces (talaaq) cannot take place
immediately, for divorce takes place one at a time. Allaah says
(interpretation of the meaning): 

“The divorce is twice”

[al-Baqarah 2:229] 

This refers to the revocable divorce (i.e.,
first or second talaaq). Allaah did not say “two divorces” – which indicates
that it can only happen one at a time, followed by the ‘iddah in each case.
If the first divorce is valid as is counted as such, then we have to wait
out the ‘iddah. If he takes you back during the ‘iddah, then this divorce
counts as one of the three divorces, and he has to bring witnesses to attest
to that. If he does not take you back during the ‘iddah, then you are
divorced as soon as the ‘iddah is over, and it is not permissible for him to
take you back without a new marriage contract and a new mahr, and he is
regarded as a stranger to you like any other man who may propose marriage,
and the marriage can only be done with your approval and the agreement of
your guardian.

The applies in the case of a second
divorce; if he takes you back during (the ‘iddah) then you are his wife. In
the event of a third divorce, you become haraam for him until you have
married another husband in a legitimate shar’i marriage which is not done
solely with the intention of enabling you to remarry your first husband, and
which is consummated in the proper manner. If it so happens that you get
divorced from your second husband then it becomes permissible for you to
remarry your first husband after the ‘iddah ends. 

And Allaah knows best.

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He is suffering from waswaas and he made many vows and broke them


He is affected by waswaas and he swore many oaths that he would not do that action again, then he broke the oaths. He has sworn many oaths and vows and only Allaah knows how many they are, and he is suffering from waswaas. How can he expiate for what has gone before?.

Praise be to Allaah.


If a person swears many oaths and breaks them, and does not
offer expiation, one of two scenarios must apply. 

1 – The vows were all to do with one thing, such as saying,
“By Allaah, I will not smoke,” then he breaks the oath and does not offer
expiation for that. Then he swears again that he will not smoke, then he
breaks the oath… in this case one expiation is required. 

2 – The oaths have to do with several actions, such as
saying, “By Allaah, I will not drink; by Allaah, I will not wear (certain
clothes); by Allaah, I will not go to such and such a place,” then he breaks
all those oaths. Does he have to offer one expiation or as many expiations
as the oaths he swore and broke? There is a difference of opinion among the
fuqaha’ concerning this matter. The majority are of the view that he must
offer several expiations, but the Hanbalis say that he only has to offer one

The more correct view is that of the majority, because these
were oaths to do several things, and breaking one of them does not mean that
another is broken, they are not interconnected. 

Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: I
am a young man and I swore to Allaah more than three times that I would
repent from a haraam action. My question is: do I have to offer one
expiation or three? And what is my expiation? 

He replied: You have to offer one expiation, which is feeding
or clothing ten poor persons, or freeing a slave. Whoever cannot do that
must fast for three days, because Allaah, may He be glorified, says
(interpretation of the meaning): 

“Allaah will not punish you for what is unintentional in
your oaths, but He will punish you for your deliberate oaths; for its
expiation (a deliberate oath) feed ten Masaakeen (poor persons), on a scale
of the average of that with which you feed your own families, or clothe them
or manumit a slave. But whosoever cannot afford (that), then he should fast
for three days. That is the expiation for the oaths when you have sworn. And
protect your oaths (i.e. do not swear much). Thus Allaah makes clear to you
His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.)
that you may be grateful”

[al-Maa'idah 5:89] 

This applies to every oath that is made to do one thing or to
refrain from one thing; if the oath is sworn repeatedly, only one expiation
is required, if he did not offer expiation the first time. But if he offered
expiation the first time, then he repeated the oath, then he must offer
another expiation, if he breaks the oath. Similarly, if he repeated it a
third time and had offered expiation the second time, he must offer a third

But if he swore oaths to do several things or to refrain from
several things, then he must offer expiation for each one, such as if he
said, “By Allaah I will not speak to So and so,” and “By Allaah I will not
eat food,” and “By Allaah, I will not travel to such and such a place,” and
“By Allaah, I will speak to So and so” and “By Allaah, I will hit him,” and
so on. 

What must be done is to give each poor person half a saa’ of
the local staple food, which is approximately one and a half kilograms. With
regard to clothing, it should be what is sufficient for prayer, such as a
thobe or a rida’ and izaar (upper and lower garment). If he gives them
dinner or breakfast, that is sufficient, because of the general meaning of
the verse quoted above. And Allaah is the source of strength.  

End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz


If the person asked about is suffering from waswaas, and he
swore these oaths under the influence of that waswaas, without intending to
do so or wanting to swear an oath, then he does not have to do anything. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If
a person is suffering from waswaas, his divorce does not count as such if he
utters the words of divorce, if it was not done intentionally, because this
utterance of divorce was caused by the waswaas and was not intended, rather
he was compelled to do it because of the strength of the waswaas and his
lack of willpower to resist it. The Prophet (peace and blessings of
Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no divorce when one is compelled.” So
the divorce does not count as such if he did not truly intend it willingly.
This is something that he was compelled to do and did not intend or choose
to do, so it does not count as a divorce. End quote from Fataawa
Islamiyyah (3/277). 

If this applies to divorce, then it applies even more so to
oaths, because the issue of marriage is more serious than the issue of

And Allaah knows best.

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Husband forcing his wife to abort a pregnancy


What is the ruling on a husband who tries to make his wife abort against her wishes in the second month of pregnancy because he wants to divorce her, by giving her medicine that will cause that to happen, even though he did not manage to bring about an abortion? Is that halaal or haraam? What is the expiation for doing that?.

Praise be to Allaah.


Aborting a pregnancy is not permissible, whether the soul
has been breathed into the embryo or not, but if that is after the soul
has been breathed in, the prohibition is more emphatic. 

If a husband tells his wife to abort a pregnancy, it is not
permissible for her to obey him. 

Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem (may Allaah have mercy on him)

Trying to abort a pregnancy is not permissible if it is not
proven that the foetus has died; if that is proven then it is permissible. 

Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Ibraaheem,

Shaykh Saalih al-Fawzaan (may Allaah preserve him) said: 


It is not permissible to
abort a pregnancy. Once pregnancy is discovered, it must be protected and it
is haraam for the mother to harm the pregnancy or disturb it in any way,
because it is a trust that Allaah has placed in her womb and it has rights,
so it is not permissible to mistreat it, harm it or destroy it. 

The shar’i evidence indicates that it is haraam to abort a

The fact that a baby cannot be born without an operation is
no excuse for abortion; many women only give birth by means of an operation
(i.e., caesarian), so this is no excuse for aborting the pregnancy. 


If the soul has been breathed into the foetus and it has
started to move, then it is aborted after that and it dies, then (the woman)
is regarded as having killed a soul and she is obliged to offer expiation by
freeing a slave; if that is not possible, then she must fast for two
consecutive months in repentance to Allaah. That is if four months of
pregnancy have passed, because in that case the soul has been breathed into
the foetus. If it is aborted after that, then kafaarah (expiation) as
described must be offered. This is a serious matter which cannot be taken
lightly. If a woman cannot bear a pregnancy for reasons of sickness, then
she has to take medication to prevent getting pregnant in the first place;
she may take contraceptive pills to delay getting pregnant for a while,
until she regains her health and strength. 

Al-Muntaqa, 5/301-302 

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn
Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a man who said to
his wife: “Abort what is in your womb and the sin will be on me.” If she
does that and listens to him, what expiation will they have to offer? 

He replied: 

If she does that, then they both have to offer expiation by
freeing a believing slave; if that is not possible then they have to fast
for two consecutive months and they have to give a male or female slave to
the heir  that did not take part in the killing, and not to the father,
because the father is the one who ordered that he be killed, so he does not
deserve anything. 

“A male or female slave” is the diyah (blood money) for the
foetus, i.e., the value of a male or female slave, which the scholars stated
is equivalent to one-tenth of the diyah for his mother. 

We have already discussed the ruling on abortion in more than
one answer. Please see questions no.

With regard to the expiation for that, because the pregnancy
was in the second month or before the soul had been breathed into the
foetus, and the abortion did not take place, then no expiation is required.
But what is required is repentance to Allaah from this haraam action. And
Allaah knows best.

Islam Q&A
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He swore to divorce her if she visited her family, and now he has recanted. Does he have to offer kafaarat yameen?


My husband swore to divorce me if I visited my family. Now he has recanted. Does he have to offer kafaarat yameen (expiation for breaking a vow)?.

Praise be to Allaah.



It is prescribed for the Muslim not to use divorce in arguments between him and
his wife. That is because of the bad consequences that result from divorce. Many men take the matter of divorce lightly and every time they have
an argument with their wives they swear to divorce them, and every time they have a dispute with their friends they swear to divorce their wives,
and so on. This is a kind of playing with the word of Allaah, so how about the one who takes divorce as his habit, so that every time he wants to
stop his wife doing something or make her do something, he swears to divorce her! 

Al-Nasaa’i (3401) narrated that Mahmoud ibn Labeed said: The Messenger of Allaah
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was told about a man who had divorced his wife three times in one sitting. He stood up angrily
and said, “Is he playing with the Book of Allaah whilst I am still among you?” Then a man stood up and said, “O Messenger of Allaah, shall I not
kill him?” Al-Haafiz said: the men of its isnaad are trustworthy. This was classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Ghaayat al-Maraam, 261. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: 

Those foolish men who utter words of divorce for every matter, minor or major, are going
against the teaching of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) who said: “Whoever swears (an oath), let him swear by Allaah
or else remain silent.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2679. So if a believer wants to swear an oath, let him swear by Allaah. 

Moreover we should not make a lot of oaths, because Allaah says (interpretation of
the meaning): 

“And protect your oaths (i.e. do not swear much)”

[al-Maa'idah 5:89] 

The commentaries on this verse may be summed up as saying that what it means is:
do not swear a great deal by Allaah. 

But swearing to divorce one’s wife, such as saying, “My wife is divorced if she
does such and such,” or “My wife is divorced if she does not do such and such,” or “if I do such and such then my wife is divorced,” or “If you do
not do such and such then my wife is divorced,” and so on, is contrary to the teachings of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon

Fataawa al-Mar’ah al-Muslimah, 2/753. 


As to whether or not divorce takes place as a result of that, the reference point here is the
husband’s intention. If he intended to divorce her, then the divorce takes place if his wife does the thing that he swore she should not do. If he
did not intend to divorce her, rather he only intended to stop her doing something, then the ruling in this case is the ruling on vows. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said: 

The most correct view is that if divorce is used as a vow, in the sense that the
intention behind it is to urge someone to do something, or to stop them from doing something, or to prove that someone is telling the truth or
lying, or to confirm something, then it comes under the rulings on vows, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“O Prophet! Why do you forbid (for yourself) that which Allaah has allowed to
you, seeking to please your wives? And Allaah is Oft‑Forgiving, Most Merciful.

Allaah has already ordained for you (O men) the absolution from your oaths”

[al-Tahreem 66:1-2] 

So Allaah has made forbidding something to oneself a vow or oath. 

And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Actions
are but by intentions, and every man will have but that which he intended.” Al-Bukhaari, 1.  

This man did not intend to divorce, rather he intended to swear an oath, or
something of that nature. So if he breaks his vow, then it is sufficient for him to offer kafaarat yameen. This is the more correct view. 

Fataawa al-Mar’ah al-Muslimah, 2/754 

The Standing Committee was asked about a man who said to his wife, “You will be divorced if
you do not come with me,” and she did not go with him. Does this mean that they are divorced? 

They replied: 

If you did not intend that divorce should take place, rather you meant to urge her to go with
you, then divorce has not taken place. But you have to offer kafaarat yameen, according to the more sound of the two scholarly opinions. If you
did intend that divorce should take place and she did not do as you said, then she has been divorced once. 

Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 20/86. 

And Allaah knows best.

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